About a decade ago I was on a mailing list that discussed medical malpractice cases and at that time the average pay out for a wrongful death of a woman was one third the payout for if a man lost a testis. Granted civil court is different than criminal court, but yeah, there's some room for improvement.
I would be cautious in comparing sentencing of dissimilar crimes or payouts from dissimilar cases of malpractice -- this is a very sensational statement, created by choosing two unrelated facts and juxtaposing them to create a specific impression of grotesque patriarchialism.
How does the payout for the accidental death of a man compare to the accidental death of a woman? How about the accidental mutilation of a man's testes and a woman's ovaries? If, hypothetically, these values are similar regardless of gender, would not the above statement then be crafted to imply some kind of gender injustice when there is, in fact, none? In any case, wouldn't comparing a similar kind of malpractice across genders generate a more meaningful (if less sensational) statistic?
Is accidental death more or less likely to occur at the hands of a competent physician then accidental genital mutilation? Perhaps the latter is indicative of a deeper incompetence, in that some operations are more likely to endanger a patient's life even if done correctly, than those likely to specifically damage sexual organs.
I suspect that the actual results will show that malpractice resulting in genital mutilation for either gender will have an abnormally high damages payout, because it's a cultural squick no matter which sort of plumbing is 'under the knife'.