Dysentry in 11th Century

Sonsofthepharaohs

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waylander

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I think the flux, or the bloody flux goes back a long way.
Wasn't Henry V described as dying of 'the bloody flux' ?
 

lkp

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Medievalist here: I think you'll be fine calling it the flux. If they had another name for it, it won't be known to your readers.
 

Ariella

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I second Lucy.

You can find some eleventh-century treatments for dysentry in one of the Old English leech books here (at the bottom of the page).
 

euclid

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Medievalist here: I think you'll be fine calling it the flux. If they had another name for it, it won't be known to your readers.

I agree. The English language went through a few major changes in medieval times, so if I want any readers then I have to write in something much more modern than would have been the norm then. Also, of course, my main characters are all from what is now Brittany, northern France, and wouldn't have been speaking any kind of English! :)
 

gothicangel

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Medievalist here: I think you'll be fine calling it the flux. If they had another name for it, it won't be known to your readers.

Resurrecting the thread.

My book is set in 1402 in Scotland, and the heir to the throne is dying from dysentry and starvation. Would the term 'the bloody flux' be acceptable?
 

Ink-Stained Wretch

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Resurrecting the thread.

My book is set in 1402 in Scotland, and the heir to the throne is dying from dysentry and starvation. Would the term 'the bloody flux' be acceptable?

I'd say yes; I can't think of anything else you could call it that your readers would recognize. But I wonder if "starvation" is even necessary to add (unless you're talking about, say, a famine so severe even the heir to the throne can't get enough to eat)? Otherwise, if you've got a guy with dysentery and no access to modern medicine, wouldn't he be starving regardless of how much food he eats? The dysentery would make him -- forgive me for being vulgar, here -- shit out everything he eats before his body can extract the necessary nutrients from it.
 

gothicangel

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I'd say yes; I can't think of anything else you could call it that your readers would recognize. But I wonder if "starvation" is even necessary to add (unless you're talking about, say, a famine so severe even the heir to the throne can't get enough to eat)? Otherwise, if you've got a guy with dysentery and no access to modern medicine, wouldn't he be starving regardless of how much food he eats? The dysentery would make him -- forgive me for being vulgar, here -- shit out everything he eats before his body can extract the necessary nutrients from it.

Thanks.

I'll explain the history. The Duke of Rothesay [Robert III's son and elder brother of James I] was given a 3 year lieutenancy by his father, and managed to upset quite a few people. The minute the lieutenancy lapsed his uncle had David arrested and imprisoned in his castle at Falkland. Within months, the heir to the Scottish throne was dead. A contemporary chronicler cited '[he] died of dysentry or, as others have it, wasted by hunger.'

Rumours at the time persisted [and historians think it's probably what happened] of foul play. Of course, the prince's death meant his uncle was a heart beat from the throne, with only the 7 year old prince James in his way.

The history books I'm reading suggest that the dysentry was probably caused by neglect and starvation.

Honestly, if it wasn't historical fact, I wouldn't believe it either! :tongue
 
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