I'd say yes; I can't think of anything else you could call it that your readers would recognize. But I wonder if "starvation" is even necessary to add (unless you're talking about, say, a famine so severe even the heir to the throne can't get enough to eat)? Otherwise, if you've got a guy with dysentery and no access to modern medicine, wouldn't he be starving regardless of how much food he eats? The dysentery would make him -- forgive me for being vulgar, here -- shit out everything he eats before his body can extract the necessary nutrients from it.
Thanks.
I'll explain the history. The Duke of Rothesay [Robert III's son and elder brother of James I] was given a 3 year lieutenancy by his father, and managed to upset quite a few people. The minute the lieutenancy lapsed his uncle had David arrested and imprisoned in his castle at Falkland. Within months, the heir to the Scottish throne was dead. A contemporary chronicler cited '[he] died of dysentry or, as others have it, wasted by hunger.'
Rumours at the time persisted [and historians think it's probably what happened] of foul play. Of course, the prince's death meant his uncle was a heart beat from the throne, with only the 7 year old prince James in his way.
The history books I'm reading suggest that the dysentry was probably caused by neglect and starvation.
Honestly, if it wasn't historical fact, I wouldn't believe it either!
