Math question- help me calculate odds

AustinCBrown

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Greetings all you math whizzes,

Can someone tell me what the odds of flipping tails on a coin 4.3 billion times in a row would be? I know you take 1/2 X 1/2 4.3 billion times to determine the answer, but I don't know how to, well, do it that many times on a calculator.

It's ten to the what power?

Many thanks for helping me. I need the answer for something I'm writing (fictional).

Austin
 

BarbaraKE

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It would be .5 to the 4.3 billionth power.

Or (1 over (2 to the 4.3 billionth power) )

In other words, it's a very tiny number.
 

Julie Worth

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Zero. The odds of getting tails just a hundred times is 7.89 x10^-31.
 
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jclarkdawe

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You wouldn't do this on a calculator. At one second per calculation, no breaks, you're looking at something like 135 years. If you live to 70, you've only got a little over 90,000,000 seconds to work with (think about all that time I've wasted answering this).

The answer would be so close to zero as to be meaningless.

Best of luck,

Jim Clark-Dawe
 

benbradley

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It would be .5 to the 4.3 billionth power.

Or (1 over (2 to the 4.3 billionth power) )

In other words, it's a very tiny number.
You can convert 2 to the power of x into 10 to the power of something by multiplying x by the log of 2 base 10, or (the actual value to five significant figure) .30103 (check this out with smaller numbers: 2^10 = 1024, so the power of 10 should be 10 * 0.3 = 3. and indeed 10^3 = 1000, close enough), so it would be 1 over 10 to the 1.294 billion, or 1 / (10 ^ 1,294,000,000)

Indeed for virtually any practical purpose this number and calculation is meaningless, but for fiction it could certainly apply, and mathematically it is definitely not zero.
 

AustinCBrown

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Need a little more help

Thanks all, but I need some clarification.

Imagine that I want to express the chances of flipping a coin that many times in row in terms like of being struck by lightning. For example, people say that you have, say, a 1 in 483,000 chance of being struck by lightning during your lifetime. Or, the chances of achieving a royal flush, for another example, is only 1 in 2,598,960 possible hands.

How can the coin flip thing be expressed in those terms... because I understand that :) And could you round it up to a nice 10 to the X power? (10 to the 121 or 133 or ????).

Thanks,
Austin
 

IceCreamEmpress

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How can the coin flip thing be expressed in those terms...

You have a one-in-10^1.294 billion chance. In other words, you have a one in 10-followed-by-1.294 billion zeros chance. There is no other name for this number. It is millions of times greater than the numbers of elementary particles in the observed universe.
 
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Julie Worth

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And could you round it up to a nice 10 to the X power? (10 to the 121 or 133 or ????).


1 in 10^1.3 billion, which is as close to zero as you could hope for.

It can be expressed as one chance in 10, followed by more than a billion zeros. The latter number is enormously bigger number than the number of particles in the universe, which is approximately 10 followed by 80 or so zeros.


Crimey! Ice Cream and I said exactly the same thing!
 
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AustinCBrown

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Thanks

Thanks all. That's exactly what I was looking for, even if it is a rediculously improbable number. Hopefully I'll finish the book I'm working on- which rests fundamentally upon that improbability- and hopefully it will be published, which, of course, is about as likely as 1 in 10^100 power :)

Austin
 

HeronW

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In any coin flip it's not the number of times that gets heads or tails--it's every individual toss. Each toss has a 50/50 chance, period. The tosses are NOT cumulative which is what trips up gamblers every time thinking: I hit heads 50x the next has got to be a tail. WRONG! Physics and statistics aren't meshing. Depending on the surface, the coin could land edge up but the surface area of the edge vs the surface area of both sides, plus the stability of an edge landing etc, is quite lean, though it does happen--blowing the heads/tails question out of the water.