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Are contractions derived from speech?
I wish to preface my remarks with the usual disclaimer: As always, when quoting dialog (or dialogue), diction depiction is never wrong.
Writers use contractions more nowadays than 50 years ago. We probably shouldn't (there I go) try to eliminate them but sometimes I wonder if we don't go too far in trying to depict what may actually be simply slurred speech rather than an actual contraction. I am referring to words that end with an "R" sound folowed by "are" such as "there're" and "where're". To my ear, they sound exactly like "there are" and "where are" except the final vowel sound is less open. Are we really speaking with a contraction in these instances or merely slurring the "are" into "ur"? Should writers use these questionable contractions or just stick with "there are" and "where are"?
I wish to preface my remarks with the usual disclaimer: As always, when quoting dialog (or dialogue), diction depiction is never wrong.
Writers use contractions more nowadays than 50 years ago. We probably shouldn't (there I go) try to eliminate them but sometimes I wonder if we don't go too far in trying to depict what may actually be simply slurred speech rather than an actual contraction. I am referring to words that end with an "R" sound folowed by "are" such as "there're" and "where're". To my ear, they sound exactly like "there are" and "where are" except the final vowel sound is less open. Are we really speaking with a contraction in these instances or merely slurring the "are" into "ur"? Should writers use these questionable contractions or just stick with "there are" and "where are"?
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