Am I correct in thinking that in ancient Rome, people committed suicide to avoid confiscation of their property? The scenario is that a person is going to convicted and executed for a crime, and all of his belongings confiscated by the state, leaving his wife and/or children helpless. So he commits suicide so that his will would be honored and his property would continue on.
Am I wrong here? I ask because I might use this in my WIP.
Thanks!
Am I wrong here? I ask because I might use this in my WIP.
Thanks!