- Joined
- Apr 7, 2007
- Messages
- 255
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- 13
I have an interesting question and so far no one really knows the answere.
Let's assume Stephen King uses yet another pen name for a new book. Another writer, gets wind of this from an editorial department, and suddenly uses the same pen name for his own horror novel about to hit the shelves.
Naturally, it's a matter of time before the public catches on the new name King is writing under, and hence the other author will get boosted sales by the public falsely thinking THAT book too is written by Mr. King.
I had assumed that authors just jot down any made up pen name to a publisher and that's the end of that. But if this is the case, then there is no real LEGAL entitlement to that name, and hence can't anyone else do what they want?
I assume you could always make a personal case of this in court and sue for damages if you believe it was done with malicious intent. But is there a real stature regarding this in the court system?
Let's assume Stephen King uses yet another pen name for a new book. Another writer, gets wind of this from an editorial department, and suddenly uses the same pen name for his own horror novel about to hit the shelves.
Naturally, it's a matter of time before the public catches on the new name King is writing under, and hence the other author will get boosted sales by the public falsely thinking THAT book too is written by Mr. King.
I had assumed that authors just jot down any made up pen name to a publisher and that's the end of that. But if this is the case, then there is no real LEGAL entitlement to that name, and hence can't anyone else do what they want?
I assume you could always make a personal case of this in court and sue for damages if you believe it was done with malicious intent. But is there a real stature regarding this in the court system?