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I'm flexible with my time period--- sometime during/after the late 1880's, but before 1905.
I'm thinking England, just because I'm more familiar with it, although I could shift the whole setting to France if there are any interesting bits of trivia that could be incorporated.
FMC is an heiress. She inherits a fortune from her father, who left it to her in his will. He's a normal, non-aristocratic person, so it's all personal property, no entailments, no titles, etc.
Her mother is alive. She got a little something in the will, but the bulk of the fortune went to her daughter.
The mother is trying to plot with Villain to romance her daughter, so Mom & Villain can run off and enjoy the fortune.
If I'm not mistaken, the Married Women's Property Act of 1882 means that a woman can inherit at that point in time, right? And whatever she inherits is hers, free and clear, and her husband no longer has direct control over his wife's fortune, especially if she acquired it prior to her marriage, correct?
So, no matter how Mom & Villain scheme, if he was successful in marrying her, he would be dependent upon his wife's generosity towards him, rather than having the ability to outright legally steal her property from under her?
And if, suppose, a terrible accident were to befall FMC before she made a will of her own, it would default to Villain, if they were married/no kids?
Or, if a terrible accident were to befall both FMC and Villain in one go, it would default back to Mom, if there were no children and no will? And obviously presuming that no crime could be traced to either of them...?
Any useful bits of trivia about inheritance laws/customs of the time, or if there's a gaping flaw in their cunning plan-- would be appreciated. Thanks!
I'm thinking England, just because I'm more familiar with it, although I could shift the whole setting to France if there are any interesting bits of trivia that could be incorporated.
FMC is an heiress. She inherits a fortune from her father, who left it to her in his will. He's a normal, non-aristocratic person, so it's all personal property, no entailments, no titles, etc.
Her mother is alive. She got a little something in the will, but the bulk of the fortune went to her daughter.
The mother is trying to plot with Villain to romance her daughter, so Mom & Villain can run off and enjoy the fortune.
If I'm not mistaken, the Married Women's Property Act of 1882 means that a woman can inherit at that point in time, right? And whatever she inherits is hers, free and clear, and her husband no longer has direct control over his wife's fortune, especially if she acquired it prior to her marriage, correct?
So, no matter how Mom & Villain scheme, if he was successful in marrying her, he would be dependent upon his wife's generosity towards him, rather than having the ability to outright legally steal her property from under her?
And if, suppose, a terrible accident were to befall FMC before she made a will of her own, it would default to Villain, if they were married/no kids?
Or, if a terrible accident were to befall both FMC and Villain in one go, it would default back to Mom, if there were no children and no will? And obviously presuming that no crime could be traced to either of them...?
Any useful bits of trivia about inheritance laws/customs of the time, or if there's a gaping flaw in their cunning plan-- would be appreciated. Thanks!