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In modern English is it literate to say “all that glitters is not gold” when you mean that “not all that glitters is gold”??
In modern English is it literate to say “all that glitters is not gold” when you mean that “not all that glitters is gold”??
Not sure what you meant by 'literate', but no, the two phrases are not equivalent.
"All that glitters is not gold" means, to me at least, that gold does not glitter. And if I do find something that glitters it won't be gold. Ever.
"Not all that glitters is gold" leaves open the possibility that gold does glitter, but there are a whole bunch of other things that also glitter, so I'd better not assume that 'glitter' = 'gold'.
Lucky for grammar that Chaucer's not around anymore then XD I agree with Duncan. "All that glitters" includes gold, which means glittering gold does not exist. And I doubt this was the intent of that statement.Chaucer would disagree.
All that glitters = everything that glitters
Everything that glitters is not gold, meaning some things that glitter may be gold, but everything is not.
Nothing that glitters is gold means nothing at all that glitters, including gold, is gold.
**** WARNING ---- TANGENT ALERT ****
"Everything" is an absolute. "Everything that glitters" includes "gold". The second half of the original phrase becomes internally contradictory by stating that "gold" does not glitter, and therefore is excluded from "Everything that glitters".
To quote Monty Python, "It don't work!"
In modern English is it literate to say “all that glitters is not gold” when you mean that “not all that glitters is gold”??
That statement is completely literate and grammatically correct. "All" is a collective pronoun (or something like that) in this case, and your rewrite of the statement is not exactly the same in meaning. "All" is the subject of "is".
What!!!??
Well this is a Shakespeare quote, unless he was using Chaucer.
The reason I asked is that Shakespeare wrote when the English languages was still changing. I don't remember the exactly what he meant by the first statement.
Both Chaucer and Shakespeare used the language like ai wan t to use i, but I get such a hard time of inventing words here.
What!!!??
Well this is a Shakespeare quote, unless he was using Chaucer.
The reason I asked is that Shakespeare wrote when the English languages was still changing. I don't remember the exactly what he meant by the first statement.
Both Chaucer and Shakespeare used the language like ai wan t to use i, but I get such a hard time of inventing words here.
You're better off not inventing words.
Shakespeare wrote when the English languages was still changing.
The reason I asked is that Shakespeare wrote when the English languages was still changing.
Interpreting the former as meaning that gold does not glitter seems a bit obtuse —it's pretty clear which meaning is intended
Strunk & White are the same people who continue to propagate nonsense ... I'd be warry of anything coming from them