Guy Fawkes and the KJV Bible

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Quentin Nokov

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Most of us are aware that Guy Fawkes became involved with a band of English Catholics who were intent on assassinating [the Protestant] King James I of England [VI of Scotland] Interestingly enough though, the gunpowder conspiracy began in 1604--the same year, King James convened the Hampton Court conference where it was decided a new translation of the bible should be made. The Church of England commenced with the KJV of the bible in 1604, which wasn't completed until 1611.

A theoretical question: If Guy Fawkes succeeded in destroying parliament and the killing of King James I of England would the church have abandoned the new translation because King James was the main person funding the project, was he not? If it had been abandoned how would that have changed religion and the bible as we see it today? The Bishop's Bible would have still been the standard until someone stepped up for a new translation, but who and how long that would take is questionable.
 

Cyia

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Most likely, it would have created a martyr situation. The translation would have become a matter of principle rather than commission and gone ahead. The difference would have been in how wide spread the distribution of the translation became.
 

Alessandra Kelley

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I was under the impression that there was a push for a new, better translation of the Bible into English, that the Bishop's Bible was perceived as having too many problems.

That translation of the Bible was named after King James, but it's not like he wrote it himself. I don't wonder that the project would go on, even without him.

If King James had been killed his son Henry would have become Henry IX, and I'm betting we would have the KHV instead of the KJV.
 

Bloo

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if I remember correctly (and I'll be honest, it's been forever since I've looked into this, though I've debated about doing a play based on it) William Tyndale was already working on/finished an English version and the KJV version was based off of that. So it wasn't like there wasn't an English translation already floating around.
 

Quentin Nokov

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if I remember correctly (and I'll be honest, it's been forever since I've looked into this, though I've debated about doing a play based on it) William Tyndale was already working on/finished an English version and the KJV version was based off of that. So it wasn't like there wasn't an English translation already floating around.

I believe the KJV of the bible actually used the Bishop's Bible as a basis because it was "relatively" close in translation, but this time the translation would be from the true Greek and Hebrew text.

Who funded the translation? I thought King James did and it just makes me wonder if with him out of the picture would the funding have still been the same?

If King James had been killed his son Henry would have become Henry IX, and I'm betting we would have the KHV instead of the KJV.

The plot was to put James' daughter Elizabeth on the throne, though.
 

gothicangel

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The plot was to put James' daughter Elizabeth on the throne, though.

That's not how the law of succession worked. Prince Henry was Prince of Wales/Duke of Rothesay. Can you imagine what would have happened if the plotters succeeded in killing James and Parliament, the repercussions would have made Butcher Cumberland like a nice guy to have pint with. Worse case scenario, Scotland would have joined with Denmark* [maybe France] and attacked England to ensure Henry succeeded.

*James' wife was Anne of Denmark.
 

gothicangel

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Also remember, Prince Charles was left in Scotland when his father moved his Court to London [he was considered too ill to travel.] So if anything happened to Prince Henry, Charles was safe at Dunfermline Palace, and would have been quickly crowned King of Scots.

Don't think the Scots wouldn't have thought twice about charging in to avenge the murders, and to free the little princess. I can imagine the Scots finding much support in England too, to place one of the Princes on the throne.
 

V W Pilegard

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An Idea Whose Time Had Come

if I remember correctly (and I'll be honest, it's been forever since I've looked into this, though I've debated about doing a play based on it) William Tyndale was already working on/finished an English version and the KJV version was based off of that. So it wasn't like there wasn't an English translation already floating around.

The idea would have surfaced elsewhere and the work would have still been done, me thinks.
 
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