Slaves were frenquently captured during wars, so I'm going to presume that Julius carried some back to Rome following his raid on Britain in 43 BC.

If anyone knows a great deal about the details of Roman slavery, can you advise me if the following is a plausible scenario? Based on what I've read so far, I believe it is, however, I've yet to locate a source that offers much detailed information on the Roman practices.

The scenario is this:
Julius returns to Rome following his raid carrying the spoils of war, including slaves. One slave, a pregnant female, is sold to a family in Rome. Her child is also property of the family, I believe.
That child, as an adult, is impregnated by her owner. This appears to have been common. The child, a male, is also property, I believe.
Roman men often kept very well educated slaves as personal advisors, accountants and even business managers.
How likely is it that a Roman citizen would use his own slave/son in such a role? I can't find anything that addresses this particular situation. A point that fine may never be fully settled, but much of a WIP is dependent upon this situation. I don't want to move ahead in the planned manner if this situation isn't plausible.
Anybody want to take a stab? Please?

Thanks.
EG