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Just double checking something I read on a none-too-reliable source; Does anyone know if it is true that Roman officials in the Holy Land and thereabouts would have spoken Greek rather than Latin in their work and dealings? Particularly around the first century AD? I know later the Byzantine Empire tended to use Greek, but was it common earlier on?
I just wanted to be sure this is correct as one of my characters has a discussion related to this. Any help is much appreciated.
I just wanted to be sure this is correct as one of my characters has a discussion related to this. Any help is much appreciated.