Do Jews hold the Virgin Mary in high regard or with reverance?

Saint Fool

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Do Jews hold the Virgin Mary in high regard or with great reverence?

I've been reading Sandstorm by James Rollins.

Triads are a theme in the book and one is based on the idea that Jews, Christians and Moslems revere Mary, the mother of Jesus.

The Christian reverence is a given (although it varies in importance from denomination to denomination.) I know that the Koran mentions her several times as the mother of a great prophet, but I don't understand how Rollins makes the Jewish connection. Personally, I think he's pulling it out of thin air.

Thanks for any explanation you can give me as to how he might have come up with this idea or any thoughts on why it might be perfectly valid.
 
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Popeyesays

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Either Mary was the mother of the Messiah or not is the issue with Jews.

If she was, then the whole denial of Jesus as the Moissach is moot and a mistake.

I do not think there would be any special place for her outside of accepting that reality.

Regards,
Scott
 

Sakamonda

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My take

Any Jews who know better than I (I am a Buddhist Gentile who is well-read in religion) feel free to correct me, but----

In order for Jews to hold Mary into reverence in any way, it would mean that they believe that Jesus was the Judaic Messiah, something Judaism rejects outright as apostatic. To Jews, Mary was merely the mother of a political figure who lived in Augustus Caesar's time. They would likely also regard the "virgin" mythology as B.S. fabricated by early Christians as a means to convert Jews to their beliefs. Indeed, much research has shown that the "virgin" mythology didn't even come up until several centuries AFTER Jesus of Nazareth's death, as part of a conference held by the leaders of several Christian sects organized by the Emperor COnstantine as a means to unify several different mythologies into one.
 

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She isn't disrespected or respected; she's just not very interesting or important.
 

TeddyG

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Medievalist said:
She isn't disrespected or respected; she's just not very interesting or important.

Not to be picky here...but in some ways this is untrue in others correct.

Since Jews do not believe in Jesus or any of the theology that came about afterwards - the original question is a non-question. Just makes no sense in the context of Judaism. If Mary did exist during the time the NT places her, she was just another woman who lived during the time.

However, there is something known in the Talmud as "The Missing Parts of the Talmud". (Hesronot Ha'Shas in Hebrew). To make an incredibly long historical notation short, the Talmud originally contained quite a few "Jesus" stories which were in many ways not exactly "kind" towards Jesus or the early Christians. More to the point, most of these stories place Jesus (or a figure very much like him) many years before the NT claims that he lived.

Additionally many of these stories are filled with parable and certain need to interpert very specific mystical connotations. Among these stories are those of the mother of Jesus, who is actually singled out as a hairdresser in quite a few of them. (and with other some non-complimentary terminology to be honest). She is at best seen as a figure who may have been manipulated and at worst...well we leave that.

These stories (whether late editions or not into the Talmud) were censored out of the text by the Church. Thus the talmud has different "folios" or "editions". There is the Vatican Codex from the 1000's or 1200's at the time of censorship) the Munich Codex and the Vilna Codex. It is the Vilna Codex that has been printed for hundreds of years and the traditional codex. The Munich Codex which I think is from the 1600's was used by certain commentaries (the Ein Yaakov being the most famous) and that codex did have some of the censored stories still within it. And thus the commentary of the Ein Yaakov contains mention of some of these stories.

This past century - the 1900's - The Vatican Codex was finally opened for Jewish scholarship and the old stories, also those of Jesus, were printed in a sep. edition a very very small work btw, called "The Missing Parts of the Talmud".

To note that anyone who studies the Talmud regularly will in most cases, not all, be able to tell when a section suddenly goes missing, most often happening in the Tractate Sanhedrin. Additionally, the English Soncino version of the Talmud makes notation at times when a particularly well known "Jesus" story should have been in the text and is not.

ETA: Some of the most recent new editions of the Talmud contain the originally church censored stories on the page in a footnote. It is difficult to fully explain in just one post, but pagination and placement in the Talmud is crucial to find places of notation that appear in tens of thousands of works. Thus pagination cannot ever be changed. (This applies to the Babylonian Talmud not the Jerusalem Talmud - yes there are two! They are also very distinct and different from one another in quite a few places)

All this being said the "Jesus stories" are they are called, really are just looked upon as a curiouso for most Jews and Talmud scholars. They are all taken with the proverbial grain of salt, each one of them can be contested in terms of originality and source and time. However, some of them due allow us to make sense of previous seemingly disjointed statements that were made in the Talmud itself. Mary all together, if memory serves me is mentioned three times in all these stories. She was just not someone that the Talmud saw any reason to deal with.

Thus the question to Jews today is a non-question. Makes no sense in the context. Jews see Zerubavel the son of Shaltiel (mentioned in Zachariah) at the beginning of the 2nd Temple Era, as the last known official descendent of David. There ends the line to the knowledge of mankind.
 
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erika

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One question on this. Do Jews not believe Jesus actually existed? There is overwhelming secular (i.e. Roman) evidence that substantiates his life and death. And what of Josephus' writings? I certainly understand people seeing him as just another man, but to dismiss his existence outright seems odd to me, like alleging that Alexander the Great didn't exist or we never landed on the moon. But whatever. Just trying to get a little clarification.
 

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It makes no difference actually. If Jesus did or did not exist, for all intent and purpose he did exist.

As to Josephus and the Jesus passage. I strongly suggest you take a look at the scholars on that one. It is incredibly suspect.

1. http://members.aol.com/Fljosephus/question.htm

2. Wikipedia

Make your own decision.

But Jews do not believe in Jesus, other than that he was a normal person living during a very difficult time. And certainly hold no reverance for Mary his mother (to answer again the original question in the thread)
 

jst5150

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Erika, a good answer is "it depends." Some acknowledge he existed. Others don't. Eddie Izzard has a great take on this in his comedy special, "Circle."

However, I think Teddy nailed it. And without becoming too theological with the discussion, one of Teddy's first sentences wrapos it up nicely: "Since Jews do not believe in Jesus or any of the theology that came about afterwards - the original question is a non-question."
 

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Yeah, that makes sense. I figured it was one of those, who cares situations, but I wanted to be sure. And before anyone accuses me, I wasn't trying to convince anybody of anything. My attitude is that I don't think the great Infinite is going to confine us to nonexistence just because we interpret history differently. It's all preordained I figure and we just believe what we must.
 

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Thanks for the response, Teddy. The idea of the Jewish/Muslim/Christian Mary worship was just so bizarre that I had to ask.

Wanders off to look at other shinier threads.
 

TeddyG

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Lisamer said:
And then...There are the Jews for Jesus...but that's a whole other story! ;)

Having taught Polemics in University (as my kids would say like 200 years ago) and having dealt with this stream which is so totally not important and very small though very vocal and active in Jewish Communities like Long Island and lower Manhattan and in LA and SF, I can say without rancour, that for now, this group is really not something that causes any problems.

First off, the "pure" Jew for Jesus will not believe in "Mary". So that will answer the original question. Second, the Jew for Jesus is on incredibly shaky ground in terms of any ability to use the OT to prove their point. (And I am not getting into specifics here - though any "knowledgable reading" of their literature vis-a-vis the sources will point this out.)

The Jews for Jesus are important only when it comes to missionary activity. That is where they get there press from. Traditional and non-traditional Jewish communities are for various reasons, wary and suspicious of missionary activity in any form.

However, in regard to the Mary question if you insist on including this group, then in their own original stance - e.g. that it is possible to remain a Jew and still believe in Jesus - the subject of Mary is still a non-subject.
 

Ralyks

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Teddy, quick question for you. Did the Jews not preserve the Talmud themselves? Did the Catholic church alone preserve it? I was a little confused by your post about the church censoring parts of the Talmud and then opening them up for study. I just wanted clarification. I understand that we owe the preservation of much existing ancient literature to the monks and copyists; I just didn't think we would owe the preservation of the Talmud to them. (I'm a Christian. I just enjoy reading this forum from time to time and learning things.)
 

smiley10000

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I'm not Teddy, but I'll try to answer your question.

The Jewish people were heavily persecuted by the Christian majority. This meant many things like these sections of the Talmud had to be removed to save our ancestors lives. The Talmud was preserved by the Jewish people and passed down in every generation but those sections that were controversial had to be removed for our safety.

It wasn't only in the Talmud that such censorship existed. Sections of prayers would also cause rioting if the Christians felt that it was directly meant to offend them.

Any other questions, ask Teddy :tongue
:)10000
 

TeddyG

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Okay Smiley is somewhat correct here.

First the Talmud. In the ages we are talking about when Jews were dispersed to the 4 corners of the earth and were forced to leave Israel, and Christianity was spreading over the world, the Jews were no longer living in their land. Additionally, the Talmud please keep in mind was created way after the second temple destruction, around 400-600 years later. It went through first the Mishnah and then Talmud. Until that point without getting into the "specifics of the law" most oral law was indeed just that - "oral". It took a decree to allow the "oral law" to be "written" down. That became the Mishnah and Talmud.

But once the Talmud was there and written and spread and certainly immediately accepted as the compendium of Jewish knowledge until that time, and until our day, it became a force to be reckoned with. The OT could not be wiped out or edited by the Christian world. (Words could be translated differently, but Christians could not touch the body of the OT text as it was accepted by them as well to be the word of God).

However the Talmud was a different story. Thus the Church itself "censored" the Talmud. Though, as I think I mentioned, it is of course impossible to censor all of it when spread to so many places, and thus there are various codices of the Talmud. Vatican, Munich, Vilna etc.

When printing became possible, for whatever reason which is not important now, but is critical for the development, it was the Vilna text that was adopted for the Babylonian Talmud. Once this took place then all other "versions" were really on a back burner. The Vilna codex or its precursor actually, had been one of those editions censored by the Church around 700-500 years beforehand.

As to what Smiley mentions about "prayer". Here she is correct. In our Sabbath prayer there is what we call "Shacharit" and an added part "Musaph" (Musaph actually means "addition")

Now in Shacharit of every day including Sabbath and Holidays the prayer the "Shema" is recited. This is recited twice a day in the morning and in the night. Shema begins with the famous statement of Jacob "Hear Oh Israel. The Lord Is Our God, the Lord Is One."

Now this prayer the Christians knew well as it was at the crux of Jewish belief and prayer. They also interpreted it as a direct affront to the concept of the Trinity. Which in this case it is not. Be that as it may, they felt the Jews were stating that God is One and thus the Trinity was impossible. This was an affront to many Christians of the time. And do not forget there were quite a few knowledgeable Jewish apostates as well who became important in the church.

And thus for many years they would not allow the Jews to say it during Shacharit. And indeed in the 1000 and 1100's and up until even the 1300's the official Church would send an "observer" to the synagogue to make sure the Jews would not repeat the Shema under pain of death.

But the "christian observer" on Sabbath would only stay for Shacharit, as Musaph was recited much later and did not contain the Shema. So what did the Jews of that time do? They placed the Shema inside what is known as the "kedusha" during Musaph and thus everyone would say the Shema after it was safe to do so. And this is still part of the prayers today. We say the Shema in the "kedusha" of Musaf as well as in its normal place during Shacharit.

That is what Smiley is alluding to.
 

Sean D. Schaffer

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Hello,


First, I want to say that this thread is fascinating to me... in a good way. As a Gentile Christian (raised as a Conservative Baptist, specifically), I am finding this thread to be highly refreshing. I frankly do not understand why Christians would persecute the Jews, just because of what I've read in my Bible concerning them. (I.e. God's chosen people; Christ saying "Salvation is of the Jews"; etc.) Why anyone would, as the cliche goes, 'bite the hand that feeds him', just makes no sense to me whatsoever.

Second, I never have heard of the Mary issue within Judaeism. Of course, I'm not Jewish, so I don't have any real experience within the said faith. I've heard that Catholics pray to Mary, but I also know that Baptists and other Protestant denominations, don't. So this thread really has been interesting to me.

Third, I have question:

I've heard that one of the problems Jews have with Christianity is that they believe they have to stop being Jewish to be a Christian. My question is: is this a real issue, or is this a myth?

My reason for asking this is that I've read verses in the NT, that say that a Gentile who accepts Jesus as the Messiah becomes part of Israel, not the other way around. Of course, few Christians I have known even mention Scriptures like this, but as a Christian myself, and wanting to know more about the people that, really, my faith originated from according to what I've read in the NT, I just wonder if this point of contention has something to do with a Christian viewpoint that is un-Scriptural where God's Chosen People are concerned, or if it might be based on something else.
 

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Complex topic

Ian D. Mecantie said:
Hello,


First, I want to say that this thread is fascinating to me... in a good way. As a Gentile Christian (raised as a Conservative Baptist, specifically), I am finding this thread to be highly refreshing. I frankly do not understand why Christians would persecute the Jews, just because of what I've read in my Bible concerning them. (I.e. God's chosen people; Christ saying "Salvation is of the Jews"; etc.) Why anyone would, as the cliche goes, 'bite the hand that feeds him', just makes no sense to me whatsoever.

Second, I never have heard of the Mary issue within Judaeism. Of course, I'm not Jewish, so I don't have any real experience within the said faith. I've heard that Catholics pray to Mary, but I also know that Baptists and other Protestant denominations, don't. So this thread really has been interesting to me.

Third, I have question:

I've heard that one of the problems Jews have with Christianity is that they believe they have to stop being Jewish to be a Christian. My question is: is this a real issue, or is this a myth?

My reason for asking this is that I've read verses in the NT, that say that a Gentile who accepts Jesus as the Messiah becomes part of Israel, not the other way around. Of course, few Christians I have known even mention Scriptures like this, but as a Christian myself, and wanting to know more about the people that, really, my faith originated from according to what I've read in the NT, I just wonder if this point of contention has something to do with a Christian viewpoint that is un-Scriptural where God's Chosen People are concerned, or if it might be based on something else.

This is a complex topic. One thing you might want to consider is why anyone who was not a Christian would find the NT particularly convincing on religious matters.
Another point to consider is that "Christianity" probably spent several hundred years forming as a set of sects in Judea, Samaria, Galilee, Damascus, Alexandria and so on and current Christianity is almost unbelievably different from what it was when the NT was written. Judaism and Christianity are even more different than NT Christianity and modern Christianity. It would be at least as hard to change from being a Modern Jew to being a modern Christian as it would for a NT Christian to change into a Modern Christian.
 

Sassenach

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Ian D. Mecantie said:
Hello,


First, I want to say that this thread is fascinating to me... in a good way. As a Gentile Christian (raised as a Conservative Baptist, specifically), I am finding this thread to be highly refreshing. I frankly do not understand why Christians would persecute the Jews, just because of what I've read in my Bible concerning them. (I.e. God's chosen people; Christ saying "Salvation is of the Jews"; etc.) Why anyone would, as the cliche goes, 'bite the hand that feeds him', just makes no sense to me whatsoever.

Second, I never have heard of the Mary issue within Judaeism. Of course, I'm not Jewish, so I don't have any real experience within the said faith. I've heard that Catholics pray to Mary, but I also know that Baptists and other Protestant denominations, don't. So this thread really has been interesting to me.

Third, I have question:

I've heard that one of the problems Jews have with Christianity is that they believe they have to stop being Jewish to be a Christian. My question is: is this a real issue, or is this a myth?

My reason for asking this is that I've read verses in the NT, that say that a Gentile who accepts Jesus as the Messiah becomes part of Israel, not the other way around. Of course, few Christians I have known even mention Scriptures like this, but as a Christian myself, and wanting to know more about the people that, really, my faith originated from according to what I've read in the NT, I just wonder if this point of contention has something to do with a Christian viewpoint that is un-Scriptural where God's Chosen People are concerned, or if it might be based on something else.

You might remember that Christians haven't exactly been flexible about people who don't accept their beliefs. [Jesus as the only way, etc.]

You can't be a Jew and a Christian--they are two fundamentally different belief systems. [Despite "Messianic Jews" claim!]
 

Sean D. Schaffer

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Sassenach said:
You might remember that Christians haven't exactly been flexible about people who don't accept their beliefs. [Jesus as the only way, etc.]

You can't be a Jew and a Christian--they are two fundamentally different belief systems. [Despite "Messianic Jews" claim!]


I'm sorry, Sassenach; I didn't mean to be offensive in my question. It was an honest one, without any ulterior motives. I did not come here to your forum so that I could win anybody to my faith. Rather, I simply want to know how Jews think.

I suppose you would want to know why I am asking this kind of question? I ask because Jesus Himself was a Jew and was pretty darned proud of that fact. As were the majority of the Apostles. The first Church was the Church of Jerusalem, and was made up almost entirely of Jews.

I want to understand where my faith came from, how the people Jesus Himself would have known, thought. How can I as a Christian reconcile myself with your people if I do not understand how your people think? Sassenach, I don't know what you believe, but I believe that Jesus claimed to be a Jewish Messiah, and because of that I want to know how the people He came from think and live and believe. If I believe I'm serving a Jewish God--which I do believe, wholeheartedly--then I must be able to think like the people He came to preach to did.

I'm not asking anyone to turn to my faith here. I'm trying here to understand the faith from which my faith had its origin.

Nothing more, nothing less. No ulterior motives here. I simply want to understand the People of God.


Nevertheless, if I offended in any way, shape or form by my question, I apologize for being offensive. Such was not my intent. I simply came here with the idea that I might come to a better understanding of the Jewish People, whom I myself love dearly. If God said that He had chosen the Children of Israel as His 'Special' people, then I most certainly want to know how God's Chosen People serve and worship their God.
 

Sean D. Schaffer

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Sokal said:
This is a complex topic. One thing you might want to consider is why anyone who was not a Christian would find the NT particularly convincing on religious matters.
Another point to consider is that "Christianity" probably spent several hundred years forming as a set of sects in Judea, Samaria, Galilee, Damascus, Alexandria and so on and current Christianity is almost unbelievably different from what it was when the NT was written. Judaism and Christianity are even more different than NT Christianity and modern Christianity. It would be at least as hard to change from being a Modern Jew to being a modern Christian as it would for a NT Christian to change into a Modern Christian.


Thank you kindly for your answer, Sokal. I was so caught up in answering Sassenach's post that I did not even think to read this one. What you have just said is a major eye-opener for me. I knew that Modern Christianity was vastly different from NT Christianity, but I never really knew how it was different. I had read that the original Church was made up primarily of Jews and thus would have been much more observant of the Jewish traditions and the Torah than Christians are today.

I am just beginning to learn much of the real history of my own faith. All I have ever known has been what some pastor told me in a Baptist Church. I admittedly know very little about the faith from which my faith stems, but I think your post has told me a bundle right here that I might never have figured out just on my own.

This is why I asked my original question. You see, Sokal, I want to go back to the kind of Christianity the early Church believed in. It's one of the passions of my present-day life. I personally have seen so much hypocrisy within the modern Church's people, that I have become disillusioned with the faith I was originally taught. People would teach me to believe something, and then when I would practice what I was taught, those same people rebuked me for doing wrong. It's this inconsistency that bothers me, Sokal, about many of the tenets of the Modern Christian faith.

One thing I started doing, so that I might be better able to understand the Jewish people and how they relate to the original Christian faith, is to not read from my King James Version anymore. I went out to a local bookstore and bought a Jewish Bible, one that was done by a Messianic Jew in Jerusalem. It contains the Tanakh and the (I hope I spell this right) B'rit Hadashah, which have not been intermingled with each other, but that also have not been separated by the usual NT and OT designations.

To me, this is another way of trying to understand the faith that is the basis for what I believe. If I find that my faith is not right somehow, I want to know about it, so that I might change accordingly... not my belief in Jesus, (or Yeshua, as the case may be), but rather my belief in something that either He did not believe in Himself, or something that does not match with the teachings of the Tanakh.
 

Sassenach

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I'm not offended. However, generally when Christians want to understand Jewish belief, there is frequently an ulterior motive--usually evangelizing.

There are innumerable books on Judaism, as well as web sites, if you're interested in learning more about ancient and modern Judaism.
 

Sean D. Schaffer

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Sassenach said:
I'm not offended. However, generally when Christians want to understand Jewish belief, there is frequently an ulterior motive--usually evangelizing.

There are innumerable books on Judaism, as well as web sites, if you're interested in learning more about ancient and modern Judaism.


Thank you kindly, Sassenach. I do understand what you're saying about ulterior motives. There was a time when I would have held such motives, but I'm beginning to see that, really, if anyone is to change, I should. Like I said in my previous post to Sokal, I was raised with a lot of inconsistencies in what I believed. Part of that, I am convinced, has to do with lack of knowledge on the part of many Christians.

Long ago, Sassenach, I read in my KJV that a Gentile who accepted Jesus as the Messiah, became 'graffed' (I know, it should be grafted, but we're talking King James English, here) into the cultivated olive tree of the Children of Israel. This is what got me started on the idea that maybe much of what I had been taught was somehow mistaken... either through misconception or misinformation. I was taught at a young age, for instance, that the Church replaced Israel as God's Chosen People. But that is not what I read in my NT, the book that people of my own faith hold as holy.

Could you suggest some sites, specifically, to me that I could look up about the Jewish faith and its people? Also, do you remember off the top of your head some of the books that you might personally recommend?


Thank you kindly for your help. I very much appreciate it.

:)
 

TeddyG

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Ian D. Mecantie said:
One thing I started doing, so that I might be better able to understand the Jewish people and how they relate to the original Christian faith, is to not read from my King James Version anymore. I went out to a local bookstore and bought a Jewish Bible, one that was done by a Messianic Jew in Jerusalem. It contains the Tanakh and the (I hope I spell this right) B'rit Hadashah, which have not been intermingled with each other, but that also have not been separated by the usual NT and OT designations.

Ian..
The reason I did not reply earlier is indeed you did sound as if you were trying to take this thread into some type of evangelical path. Thus I desisted from answering, as such a path though sadly would not have come as a surprise to me, but there is just no need to get into these discussions on a place like AW. l am glad you kind of explained yourself.

Now to what you worte and what I bolded above.

If you want to read the OT in English and you want to get a "Jewish" view of it then you certainly have picked the wrong way to go about it. Reading an English rendition created by "messianic" jews is actually much worse than reading the KJV. Indeed you must know that even the chapters used in OT and the division has ancient Christian influence (not getting into this here.) Jews divide the Torah (Five Books of Moses) according to "Parsha Petucha" and "Parsha Setumah" (and again this is not for discussion here.) A bible produced by a Messianic Jew, for a Jew to be brutally honest, is much much worse than using the KJV. It is simply wrong from every possible viewpoint and simply a hodgepodge of "belief" inserted willy-nilly upon words.

And now let me explain:

Polemics, Biblical Scholarship & Religious debate between Christian and Jew when entering into the Bible - specifically the OT - is very dependent upon verse structure and word meaning. Indeed it is the focal point of how things are looked at in many cases. Thus a "messianic" Jew (and since this is a fringe group I will assume I am familiar with the text you are using as there are not many) will interpret these words according to his needs and desires. That is NOT Judaism. That is Christianity clothed in yet another shroud of Turin.

Let me give you a real live example. The Virgin Birth. And before I give this one example among hundreds if not thousands, let me state unequivocally this is not meant as an attack or in any disrespectful manner upon beliefs of a Catholic. This is to simply explain some things in how verse reading goes on and it subsequent re-interpetation.

Scholars will tell you that the Virgin Birth actually finds its roots in Roman gods and Idol Worship. It was not a strange concept to the pagans at that time. And this is something that early Christianity incorporated into its religious centrality for a myriad of reasons.

There was almost a pathological need on the part of the Church (sometimes even until today) to show that these things were "prophesied" in the OT. And thus the early leaders of the Church scoured the OT for clues. Some knew the original Hebrew, some were already a couple of generations removed from Judaism and thus had no ability to read the original.

And thus the verse from Isaiah was adopted (totally taken out of context and totally lifted from anything surronding it but hat is another discussion) for the virgin birth.

Isaiah 7:14

"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold the young woman (almah) is with child, and she shall bear a son and call his name Immanu'el." (The name means "God is with us".)

This is the famous "virgin" birth predicted as Christians beleave in the OT. The inherent claim here is that the Hebrew word Almah means "virgin" and thus the Virgin Birth is predicted in the OT. (And I have no doubt your version translates this word as Virgin.)

Well as they say someone made a big boo-boo. Because simply put Almah does not only NOT mean virgin - it actually means "a strong vigorous woman" or "strong vigorous man". "Elem" (m) and Almah (f) Actually to put it starkly - Almah means the exact oppisite of a virgin!

It kind of gets more complicated. Because the way we know terms and definitions is through their use in the OT. The context of the word being used and why and how. The root of the word. (this is a critical study in the roots of any language).

I must turn your attention to "Proverbs" in the OT for a minute. Now whether you ascribe to the theory that it was written by King Solomon or whether you ascribe to the theory that Proverbs is a compendium of knowledge - all theories are clear about one thing. It was written and redacted into the OT way before, (hundreds of years before) Mary and Jesus ever existed. Thus seeking in Proverbs is a legitimate way to define certain words such as "Almah" for Polemics.

But since you are a "believing" Christian, then there would be no need to express any sort of doubt in the authenticity of King Solomon's authorship here. Thus we are looking at one of the three books written by the King who is called "the wisest man upon the earth". Therefore it should be safe to assume that his parables do make sense!

In a section of Proverbs, where Solomon enters into parables based upon the number three and four we read:

Proverbs 30 18-20

"Three things which are too wondrous for me, and four which I know not;
The way of the vultures in the sky; the way of a snake upon a rock; the way of a ship in the midst of the sea - and the way of a man with a young woman ("almah"). Likewise the way of an adulterous woman; she eats and wipes her mouth and says I have done nothing wrong".

Solomon compares three things which essentially have something in common to a forth - 'the way of a man with an almah' and then to a FIFTH an adulteruous woman.

So what is this "Almah" we keep on referring to? Well let us look at the context of this parable.
There are three types of possiblities: 1) Virgin 2) Young Woman 3) Adulterous woman

What is the common denominator between the first three things.
1. When a vulture flies through the sky (or any bird) after it is gone is there a trace of it? Answer is no.
2. When a snake goes upon the earth - after it is gone it leaves a trace, markings in the earth - BUT when a snake travels upon a rock is there a trace of its passage? Again no.
3. When a boat travels in the sea - after it disappears upon the horizon is there any trace upon the water that it was once there? Again no.

Thus when a man is with an almah - so too afterwards there is no trace that he was there. This is compared to the adulterous woman who "wipes her mouth and says I have done nothing wrong".

If this word "almah" meant virgin - there would be a trace! We would know that a virgin was deflowered simply because she once had a hymen and there was blood and now there is no longer a hymen (remember this is in context of parable not in medical context). There is no sense in comparing the man with the young woman - in this parable - to the adulterous woman who can essentially hide what she has done like the snake, the vultures, the ship - unless this "almah" is NOT a virgin. A virgin will leave a sign - forever. Because once she was a virgin and now she is no longer!

Not only can "almah" NOT mean a virgin - but it means exactly the opposite.

It means someone who is NOT a virgin.

The word for virgin in Hebrew is "betulah" (f) and "betul" (m)
Thus this whole "virgin birth" prophecy in Isaiah makes no sense whatsoever to the Jew. And indeed Almah and Elem are used in the OT again and again. NEVER DO WE FIND IT REFERS TO A VIRGIN.

This is just one very small example of how words are interpreted differently and in the wrong context or even taken out of context from the original. Indeed I can point to a place where a comma is purposely misplaced and thus changes all the meaning of poetic verse!

So be careful. If you want to read a Jewish translation of the Bible, and understand how Jews see the OT then the lesson here is to stay far away for any "messianic" interpretation of the Bible by messianic Jews.

All that being said it comes down to a matter of belief. And as I have said again and again, Jews simply do not believe in Jesus or any messianic idea coming from him.