Simple Spanish questions

si

Yes, it's identical in Spanish. If one referred to a group of her female friends, it's "mis amigas." If male or a mixed male/female group, it's "mis amigos." She would indeed say, "He and I were the only Latinos." Every time the gender gets mixed in the sentence, the article and noun endings revert to male.

I once wrote a book with a Cuban-American main character. For the ease of readers, anytime I tossed a Spanish term in, I had one of the other characters respond in a way that made it clear what had been said. Or I used simple expletives, like "¡Rayos!" or "¡Dios mediante!" which didn't need translation directly, but were clear from context.

PS, on that book I got very mixed opinions on whether the secondary characters tossed in too much Spanish, or not enough. Chacun á son goût, I say.

Remember Latino is not all one group. There are significant differences between people from mainland Spain, Mexico, Chile, and Cuba, for example.

Cobalt Jade said:

Remember Latino is not all one group. There are significant differences between people from mainland Spain, Mexico, Chile, and Cuba, for example.

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True...

"Latino" and "Hispanic" are not the same thing either...

Super condensed version - "Latino" refers to those from Latin America (so includes Brazil, but not Spain) - it's a geographic reference. "Hispanic" refers to Spanish speaking countries (so includes Spain, but not Brazil) - it's a language-based reference.

Katharine Tree said:

Agent says I need to put more emphasis on the multiracial nature of my characters. My narrator, a woman, and another male character are both Latino (though she's a Latina, of course.)

I know that in French, if even one member of a group is male, that makes the plural for the whole group male. Is it the same in Spanish? Would she say "he and I were the only Latinos"?

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Si, senora.