SCOTUS rules part of Voting Rights Act unconstitutional

missesdash

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Supreme Court Strikes Down Part of Voting Rights Act
The Supreme Court struck down a central portion of the Voting Rights Act Tuesday, effectively ending the practice in which some states with a history of racial discrimination must receive clearance from the federal government before changing voting laws.

The vote was five to four, with the five conservative-leaning judges in the majority and the four liberal-leaning justices in the minority. Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. wrote the decision.

The majority held that Section 4 of the Voting Rights Act, originally passed in 1965 and since updated by Congress. The section includes a formula that determines which states must receive pre-approval.

The court did not strike down Section 5, which allows the federal government to require pre-approval. But without Section 4, which determines which states would need to receive clearance, Section 5 is largely without significant — unless Congress chooses to pass a new bill for determining which states would be covered.

I'm not sure how I feel about it yet. But I do think it's interesting to consider which states (and why) would be on the list for requiring pre-approval if congress passed a new law.

The argument that "these states are no longer institutionally racist" seems true but I can't help but be wary of the sentiment.

http://projects.nytimes.com/live-dashboard/mobile/2013-06-25-supreme-court
 

southbel

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I agree with this decision. I'm of the mindset either have every state require preclearance or none. Now Congress will have to pass legislation to determine that criteria once again. Shall be interesting to see how that pans out.
 

missesdash

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I agree with this decision. I'm of the mindset either have every state require preclearance or none. Now Congress will have to pass legislation to determine that criteria once again. Shall be interesting to see how that pans out.

I think I agree with this in that I'd like to see every state require it. I recall recently, I think, that Texas attempted to pass a law that the fedgov wouldn't clear but I can't recall what type of consequences there were.

But the fact that it was an issue so recently makes me think oversight is still necessary.
 

southbel

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I think I agree with this in that I'd like to see every state require it. I recall recently, I think, that Texas attempted to pass a law that the fedgov wouldn't clear but I can't recall what type of consequences there were.

But the fact that it was an issue so recently makes me think oversight is still necessary.
Both Voter ID and redistricting have been denied by DOJ via Voting Rights Act for several states covered under Section 4. Those states that were not covered by Section 4 were able to enact the same changes the ones requiring preclearance were not. Basically, it's not equal. Either have it for all or for none I say.
 

muravyets

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All states should be under pre-clearance requirements, without exception. They should have done it that way from the start. However, the need for the pre-clearance in the states in which it originally applied was obvious and overwhelming. It is both telling and disgusting, in my opinion, that this case was brought by the states and the specific county that were both the most egregious offenders originally and the most obvious violators in the 2012 elections with new voter suppression laws.

It is time to crack down on this bullshit. They don't want to be singled out? Fine. Now they and all their corrupt friends in the other states that jumped on their bandwagon can feel the short leash together. Make it the national standard.

PS: This is just the latest note in the Pissing Off Mura symphony in the news of late. I am probably going to have to take a breather from all human contact for a while before I can even discuss issues in a civilized manner, because I really just want to smack people in the head at this point. Like, with a blunt instrument. I've effing had it.
 

RichardGarfinkle

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Here's the text of Roberts' decision.
http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/12pdf/12-96_6k47.pdf

It's intriguing in what it affirms. Roberts asserts that the voting rights act was correct when passed, and correct up through re-authorization in the 1990s. He accepts the pernicious quality of racial discrimination and the right of Congress to pass and the federal government to enforce the voting rights act.

His ruling is base on data of all things. He's saying that the formula no longer fits the facts. He's saying that if Congress makes a formula that fits the current facts of voting patterns that the law would be constitutional.
 

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His ruling is base on data of all things. He's saying that the formula no longer fits the facts. He's saying that if Congress makes a formula that fits the current facts of voting patterns that the law would be constitutional.
Not unexpected, but this is brilliant.

Certain areas which have in the past suppressed minority voting through enacting discriminatory laws saw a significant increase in minority voting once the VRA prevented them from implementing them.

But that increase in minority voting shows that there's no longer a problem -- because everyone gets to vote. Perfect circular logic -- the very success of the act in addressing discrimination becomes the reason it cannot be retained.

Big celebrations in conservative circles, and you can expect a slew of new voting ID laws, changes in polling places, and redistricting across the south.

In Texas, where the influx of Hispanics had been seen as a serious future threat to republican control, you can hear a huge sigh of relief.
 

southbel

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Yes, yes, the South is evil. Same old arguments I've heard time and again. /sarcasm
If Congress wants pre-clearance, make everyone get it, Problem solved.
 

RichardGarfinkle

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Not unexpected, but this is brilliant.

Certain areas which have in the past suppressed minority voting through enacting discriminatory laws saw a significant increase in minority voting once the VRA prevented them from implementing them.

But that increase in minority voting shows that there's no longer a problem -- because everyone gets to vote. Perfect circular logic -- the very success of the act in addressing discrimination becomes the reason it cannot be retained.

Big celebrations in conservative circles, and you can expect a slew of new voting ID laws, changes in polling places, and redistricting across the south.

In Texas, where the influx of Hispanics had been seen as a serious future threat to republican control, you can hear a huge sigh of relief.

But there's an interesting problem if they do this and end up with suppressed votes that can be backed up by data. The Justice Department can come back with another case and say, "Chief Justice Roberts said that we can use the old formula if it fits the data. Well, it fits the data again. So let's use it."

Roberts' use of data as the determiner means that the principle of the Voting Rights act is intact. He also did not disavow the ability to treat states differently provided they actually behaved differently. In short, this decision is not good for those wanting to suppress by race. Nor does it demand that states be treated equally if their track records are not equal.
 

southbel

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But why not treat them equally? What possible argument is there against doing so?
 

raburrell

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Yes, yes, the South is evil. Same old arguments I've heard time and again. /sarcasm
If Congress wants pre-clearance, make everyone get it, Problem solved.

The problem here is that this involves expecting Congress to do anything, let alone anything in which they've been handed a golden opportunity to keep their fat thumbs on the election scales for another few decades.

The South is not evil, no. But sadly, still a bastion for this kind of thing.
 

raburrell

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Good analysis on Scotusblog Here about why the notion of 'politician, heal thyself' indicated in today's decision is so fraught.
 

southbel

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This is where I get so frustrated. The South is not the same South of old. There are pockets of racism in all corners of this country. However, the systemic racism that existed with the Voting Rights Act was passed is long past. I'm not talking about the stereotypes of the South (which I have seen again and again even from people who have never been here). The systemic racism employed via Jim Crow laws is long gone. We should all celebrate that.

I have seen the argument that being largely conservative = racist and I reject that hypothesis. So, if that's the argument, I will simply discount it.
 

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This is where I get so frustrated. The South is not the same South of old. There are pockets of racism in all corners of this country. However, the systemic racism that existed with the Voting Rights Act was passed is long past. I'm not talking about the stereotypes of the South (which I have seen again and again even from people who have never been here). The systemic racism employed via Jim Crow laws is long gone. We should all celebrate that.

I have seen the argument that being largely conservative = racist and I reject that hypothesis. So, if that's the argument, I will simply discount it.

Even Roberts said that the reauthorization in the 1990s was justified. That was only 20 years ago. And the claim that the problems in the South were long past were being made then as well (actually they were made far earlier).

It's only the most recent reauthorization that he said was bad. His reasoning wasn't that racism was over in the South, but that the formula wasn't current to the data.
 

missesdash

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This is where I get so frustrated. The South is not the same South of old. There are pockets of racism in all corners of this country. However, the systemic racism that existed with the Voting Rights Act was passed is long past. I'm not talking about the stereotypes of the South (which I have seen again and again even from people who have never been here). The systemic racism employed via Jim Crow laws is long gone. We should all celebrate that.

I have seen the argument that being largely conservative = racist and I reject that hypothesis. So, if that's the argument, I will simply discount it.

The idea that systematic racism is gone because Jim Crowe no longer exists sounds rather naive to me. Things are much better in the south, of course. But I'd disagree that every state on the list is now better to the point of not needing oversight.

I also don't know your definition of "long gone." Jim Crowe isn't even "long gone" when one considers how old the US is.
 

southbel

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Everyone has an opinion on the South but I can tell you the only place I ever saw overt racism was when I went to boarding school up North. Personally, I disagree with Roberts and believe even in 1990, it did not meet criteria to support the Voting Rights Act reassertion. However, I am willing to concede that point since at the end of the day, the right decision was made.

Again, this is progress. This is good. If there is serious concern that states should get pre-clearance, then Congress can simply apply it to all states. Equally applied at that point.
 

southbel

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The idea that systematic racism is gone because Jim Crowe no longer exists sounds rather naive to me. Things are much better in the south, of course. But I'd disagree that every state on the list is now better to the point of not needing oversight.

I also don't know your definition of "long gone." Jim Crowe isn't even "long gone" when one considers how old the US is.
Comparative to much older nations, yes, long gone would be the wrong terminology. However, the South is such a different place from the days of Jim Crow.

I genuinely believe the Voting Rights Act was the right thing to do at the time. However, I also believe that the South has made the necessary progress to move beyond those days.

Again, this is a matter of pre-clearance being applied. The solution, if Congress genuinely believe it is still needed, is to simply apply it to all the states.
 

Xelebes

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Comparative to much older nations, yes, long gone would be the wrong terminology. However, the South is such a different place from the days of Jim Crow.

I genuinely believe the Voting Rights Act was the right thing to do at the time. However, I also believe that the South has made the necessary progress to move beyond those days.

Again, this is a matter of pre-clearance being applied. The solution, if Congress genuinely believe it is still needed, is to simply apply it to all the states.

Long gone, I believe, in a geopolitical sense means that a new regime has set in. For example, let us take England. Danelaw became long gone when Henry II created his whole new regime of law. Even after William the Conqueror took over England, Danelaw was not long history. They had to wait a century before Common Law took over.
 

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But why not treat them equally? What possible argument is there against doing so?

The Justice Department doesn't have the manpower. Preclearing all states' voting laws would swamp the system and grind it to a halt. They have to screen laws that are investigated, and that screening was by flagging regions that had racist voting laws in the past.

I agree that it would be best to apply the law to the entire country, but then Congress needs to double the budget of the Justice Department.
 

southbel

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The Justice Department doesn't have the manpower. Preclearing all states' voting laws would swamp the system and grind it to a halt. They have to screen laws that are investigated, and that screening was by flagging regions that had racist voting laws in the past.

I agree that it would be best to apply the law to the entire country, but then Congress needs to double the budget of the Justice Department.
This change doesn't preclude the DOJ from challenging voting law changes. Just on which states require pre-clearance.
 

ColoradoGuy

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The radically reactionary GOP can't hold the dam forever. They've bought (and I do mean bought) themselves maybe a couple decades. That's all.