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LOG
07-07-2010, 03:24 AM
I'm wondering if anyone has any data or experiments that have reliably shown that the idea of reverse psychology in something like drugs (i.e. lifting the bans on certain drugs may cause people to no longer use them, especially the people who do it for rebellion sakes, or because it's taboo) actually works?

Silver King
07-07-2010, 05:00 AM
LOG, I'm going to move this one to the Experts forum, where you are more likely to receive the input you are seeking.

spamwarrior
07-07-2010, 07:59 AM
Of course, there's also the issue of drug addiction.

DrZoidberg
07-07-2010, 12:48 PM
I'm wondering if anyone has any data or experiments that have reliably shown that the idea of reverse psychology in something like drugs (i.e. lifting the bans on certain drugs may cause people to no longer use them, especially the people who do it for rebellion sakes, or because it's taboo) actually works?

There's been a bunch of studies done on Holland. But I think it'd be a stretch to attribute their low marijuana use with "reverse psychology" being at play. It's most likely a lot more complicated. This is the kind of stuff sociologists argue about.

Here's the first that popped up when I did a random search on Google Scholar:
http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/sci;278/5335/47

Maybe I'm just being overly narrow minded, but I couldn't possibly imagine how to construct such an experiment. There are also ethical hurdles to clear, which I can't see happening.

You could also explore various topics connected to "Harm Reduction".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harm_reduction

JimmyB27
07-07-2010, 03:29 PM
I'm wondering if anyone has any data or experiments that have reliably shown that the idea of reverse psychology in something like drugs (i.e. lifting the bans on certain drugs may cause people to no longer use them, especially the people who do it for rebellion sakes, or because it's taboo) actually works?
You might look into Prohibition in the twenties.

Kathie Freeman
07-07-2010, 09:04 PM
Prior to Prohibition alcoholism was a national disgrace affecting all levels of society, but particularly the common workers. Alcohol use actually dropped signficantly during the prohibition era and never returned to pre-prohibition levels. Despite the widespread lawlessness that occurred, the experiment did serve a purpose.

DrZoidberg
07-08-2010, 11:44 AM
Prior to Prohibition alcoholism was a national disgrace affecting all levels of society, but particularly the common workers. Alcohol use actually dropped signficantly during the prohibition era and never returned to pre-prohibition levels. Despite the widespread lawlessness that occurred, the experiment did serve a purpose.

The same thing happened in Sweden and all over the west. We didn't have prohibition. Isn't it a better argument that it was a result of rising living standards and an improved quality of life in general?