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DwayneA
04-03-2010, 08:52 AM
Seriously, where did it get the name? Why is the Friday before Easter called "Good Friday"? Nothing good happens on that day!

Shakesbear
04-03-2010, 10:14 AM
Good Friday may be derived from 'God's Friday'. Another reason that is may be called 'good' is that the Crucifixion broke the barrier of sin - it gave people hope as it started the process of Resurrection. Not sure I've explained that very well ...

aadams73
04-03-2010, 02:36 PM
It's simple. When they crucified Jesus, there was this one guy (let's call him Shirley, because that was his name) in charge of making sure he was dead.

When Shirley became convinced Jesus was dead he yelled, "Oi, he's dead!"

And the other Romans yelled, "Good!"

And thus it became Good Friday.

(If you don't believe me, try Googling.)

dpaterso
04-03-2010, 02:41 PM
It's good 'cause it's a holiday, in the UK anyway.

As said above, Google is your friend:

Why is Good Friday called Good Friday (http://www.google.com/#hl=en&source=hp&q=why+is+good+friday+called+good+friday&meta=&aq=0&aqi=g7&aql=&oq=why+is+good+fri&gs_rfai=&fp=459b761b84e2996a)

-Derek

scarletpeaches
04-03-2010, 03:20 PM
I believe aadams73. She's never lied to me.

thehairymob
04-03-2010, 07:15 PM
I always thought it was because it was the one day of the year where everyone was good and the rest of the time we get to be as naughty as we want. hehehe :evil

backslashbaby
04-03-2010, 07:56 PM
You want to go with Karfreitag instead? I'm with you there. I'll make posters if you like :D

Seriously, as a kid I kept forgetting why Good Friday was important because its name threw me off remembering its meaning :) I like Mourning Friday better (Karfreitag).

jennontheisland
04-03-2010, 07:58 PM
You want to go with Karfreitag instead? I'm with you there. I'll make posters if you like :D

I read that as fart-kreig.

backslashbaby
04-03-2010, 07:59 PM
:ROFL:

thehairymob
04-03-2010, 08:25 PM
:roll:

mario_c
04-05-2010, 03:34 AM
In fact, it was a good Friday. Just sayin'.

Sheryl Nantus
04-05-2010, 04:00 AM
dude, do your research.

and have a little bit of respect for those of us who have religious beliefs.

thank you.

Medievalist
04-05-2010, 07:39 AM
Learn to use a dictionary.

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/good+friday

DwayneA
04-05-2010, 09:12 AM
dude, do your research.

and have a little bit of respect for those of us who have religious beliefs.

thank you.


I'm not being disrespectful. I was just asking a question. Nothing wrong with that.

writerterri
04-05-2010, 09:29 AM
In the Old Testiment of the Holy Bible we used to have to attone for our own sins by slaughtering our very best animals. It was a very detailed task and entailed a lot of must do's to get it right. God saw that we couldn't keep up with the sin to slaughter ratio and sent Jesus, His son, to attone for all of man kind's sin once and for all, past, present and future. Friday begins Easter. Jesus went to the slaughter for our attonement, crusified that day and took on the sins of the world as the Lamb Of God.


Seems all good to me.

Medievalist
04-05-2010, 10:02 AM
I'm not being disrespectful. I was just asking a question. Nothing wrong with that.

1. Given the way you phrased your question, it was certainly less than respectful, though I suspect the disrespect was not intentional.

2. If it's something that can be answered as easily as looking it up in the dictionary, or doing a thirty-second Google search, you're being either lazy, or exploitative; your choice.

Black Bird
04-05-2010, 10:23 AM
Amen writerterri! you got to the heart of it.

Mac H.
04-05-2010, 12:59 PM
writerterri - A nice homily but it has absolutely nothing to do with why it is called 'Good Friday' !

As a clue, it is only in English (and languages we have corrupted!!) that we see this oddity - the French call it as 'Holy Friday' and another language 'Gottes Freytag'

If you are interested in the ORIGIN of why it is called 'Good Friday' in English, just look at some examples of Middle English

If we read Middle English poetry like 'THE INCESTUOUS DAUGHTER' we read:


Sche pukyd a squyre and on hym lew,
And be the sleve sche hym drew,
And other yonge men mo.
They bade hyr leve and go hyr wey,
For it was on God Frydey —
With hyr thei wold not go.


It is clear that 'God' in this poem means literally 'God' rather than 'Good' because in the next stanza of the poem we read:


Thorow the grace of God allmyght,
A word in hyr herte lyght
That the bysschop spake,
That a tere fell fro hyr eye
And be hyr lares it gan don fle,
And the coler brake.

The fendys fley and were adrad;
The byschop therof was full glad
And thankyd God full styll.
The holy man prechyd of Godys lore, (ie: God's lore)
The woman sate and syghed sore,
And wepyd all hyr fylle.

Other texts of the period have phrases like:


o goode god, wel oghte man have desdayn
of synne, sith that thurgh synne, ther he


So 'Good Friday' in modern English is clearly a variant of the earlier 'God Frydey' - but has no connection to a concept of 'goode frydey'.

The conversion to 'Good' (instead of 'God') Friday was fairly recent - to quote a (much more readable!) ship's log in 1539:


In the yere of our lorde 1539, the 9 daye of Marche, departyde the shype called the Barbera of London owtt of the havon of Pochmowthe apon hyr Brasyll vyage unto Cawshott Pyntt, where she rode days, and the 5 daye the whyche owas the Passyon Sondeye, she tooke the see.

And the Twesdey or Wensdey next folowynge she came to Fawmowthe, where she rode Frdeye att nyght, and then departed. And the pyline Sondey we had syghtt of the Borlynges.

And the God Frydey we came to the Cap Sentt Vensentt, where we tooke a barke ladyn with Portynggell saltt, the whiche they tooke to weyght over the shyppe.


Yet by Shakeseare's time (1600s) we read in his plays:


"Madam, I was not old Sir Robert's son:
Sir Robert might have eat his part in me
Upon Good Friday and ne’er broke his fast."


It seems entrenched - the 'Poor Robin's Almanak' in 1733 reads:


Good Friday come this month, the old woman runs
With one or two a penny hot cross buns.

(Which is also the first reference to hot cross buns !)

Mac
(PS: In defense of the OP, I'm not sure this is a question the can be easily answered by google. Google throws up lots of references to how some people think this, or that 'it is believed' ... but no logical argument for this being the case.

Certainly no references so that people can read snippets of the original texts and watch the language evolve for themselves.)

thehairymob
04-05-2010, 07:24 PM
I don't see the question as disrepectful, and I'm sure if the big man's son was here he wouldn't either. No he would be the one to enjoy a good bash and through all the holier than thou's a clanger or to to show them the error of their ways. "How can you take a twig from your neighbours eye when there is a plank in your's." Or what about, "Judge not least you be judged." Yes he could have3research the answer himself but he came here to ask those who are his friends, his brother, and his sisters in humanity. Sorry for being heavy and I wish none any offence. I just wish that fellow christians would find the peace the our Lord gave his life for.

mscelina
04-05-2010, 07:29 PM
Dwayne,

If you type all these questions into the search window of your main page, you'll find much better answers with a lot less annoyance. This is a writers' board, not the 'answer every question Dwayne has' board. Come on now--Google, buy reference books, or ask your mother--try something other than annoying all of AW on a daily basis.

Medievalist
04-05-2010, 09:10 PM
If we read Middle English poetry like 'THE INCESTUOUS DAUGHTER' we read:


Sche pukyd a squyre and on hym lew,
And be the sleve sche hym drew,
And other yonge men mo.
They bade hyr leve and go hyr wey,
For it was on God Frydey —
With hyr thei wold not go.


It is clear that 'God' in this poem means literally 'God' rather than 'Good' because in the next stanza of the poem we read:

No, really, it isn't and it doesn't. God = Good here; it really does. I further note that in all other versions of this text it's written as Good, and that Good is used to mean holy" all the way back to OE.

Keep in mind the syntax positions, too, btw. Adjective vs noun, and the absence of the genitive.

It's the same use of "good" seen in Modern English "the good book" to refer to the Bible.

Good Friday was first used in Middle English in the late 13th century (OED).

Good Friday is "good" because a distinction is being made between the Friday of the crucifixion and all other Fridays--which are days of ill-luck usually--because of the connection between the crucifixion and rise of Christ, and the Fortunate Fall of Adam; because of Adam's fall, we have Mary; because Mary, we have Christ, and because of Christ all humans may "rise" from sin, etc. etc.

You'll also see English sources from the Middle Ages and on calling Good Friday Holy Friday, Great Friday/Magnum Friday, and even Black Friday.

It is dangerous to assume orthography = etymology, especially in ME, where we have scribal issues, dialect issues, mss. differences, etc.

Look at the various spellings and usages in the Middle English Dictionary for "good":

http://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/m/mec/med-idx?type=byte&byte=67601432&egdisplay=open&egs=67685630

writerterri
04-05-2010, 09:39 PM
writerterri - A nice homily but it has absolutely nothing to do with why it is called 'Good Friday' !

As a clue, it is only in English (and languages we have corrupted!!) that we see this oddity - the French call it as 'Holy Friday' and another language 'Gottes Freytag'

If you are interested in the ORIGIN of why it is called 'Good Friday' in English, just look at some examples of Middle English

If we read Middle English poetry like 'THE INCESTUOUS DAUGHTER' we read:



It is clear that 'God' in this poem means literally 'God' rather than 'Good' because in the next stanza of the poem we read:



Other texts of the period have phrases like:



So 'Good Friday' in modern English is clearly a variant of the earlier 'God Frydey' - but has no connection to a concept of 'goode frydey'.

The conversion to 'Good' (instead of 'God') Friday was fairly recent - to quote a (much more readable!) ship's log in 1539:



Yet by Shakeseare's time (1600s) we read in his plays:



It seems entrenched - the 'Poor Robin's Almanak' in 1733 reads:



(Which is also the first reference to hot cross buns !)

Mac
(PS: In defense of the OP, I'm not sure this is a question the can be easily answered by google. Google throws up lots of references to how some people think this, or that 'it is believed' ... but no logical argument for this being the case.

Certainly no references so that people can read snippets of the original texts and watch the language evolve for themselves.)

Sorry, I'm a fundamentalist at heart. :D

writerterri
04-05-2010, 09:44 PM
No, really, it isn't and it doesn't. God = Good here; it really doesn't. I further note that in all other versions of this text it's written as Good, and that Good is used to mean holy" all the way back to OE.

Keep in mind the syntax positions, too, btw. Adjective vs noun, and the absence of the genitive.

It's the same use of "good" seen in Modern English "the good book" to refer to the Bible.

Good Friday was first used in Middle English in the late 13th century (OED).

Good Friday is "good" because a distinction is being made between the Friday of the crucifixion and all other Fridays--which are days of ill-luck usually--because of the connection between the crucifixion and rise of Christ, and the Fortunate Fall of Adam; because of Adam's fall, we have Mary; because Mary, we have Christ, and because of Christ all humans may "rise" from sin, etc. etc.

You'll also see English sources from the Middle Ages and on calling Good Friday Holy Friday, Great Friday/Magnum Friday, and even Black Friday.

It is dangerous to assume orthography = etymology, especially in ME, where we have scribal issues, dialect issues, mss. differences, etc.

Look at the various spellings and usages in the Middle English Dictionary for "good":

http://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/m/mec/med-idx?type=byte&byte=67601432&egdisplay=open&egs=67685630

And what Medievalist said. *hides behind Medievalist*

mario_c
04-06-2010, 08:39 AM
I don't see the question as disrepectful, and I'm sure if the big man's son was here he wouldn't either. No he would be the one to enjoy a good bash and through all the holier than thou's a clanger or to to show them the error of their ways. "How can you take a twig from your neighbours eye when there is a plank in your's." Or what about, "Judge not least you be judged." Yes he could have3research the answer himself but he came here to ask those who are his friends, his brother, and his sisters in humanity. Sorry for being heavy and I wish none any offence. I just wish that fellow christians would find the peace the our Lord gave his life for.
Hell, I'm an agnostic* but that's spot on. Unfortunately, they love a good fight in here so we'll have to leave them at it. Bye, all.

*religiously undecided

Shadow_Ferret
04-06-2010, 08:45 AM
You mean there's a another reason
-besides it was my birthday?

How can this possibly be? =(

Wow. Your birthday depends on when the full moon is after March 21st? That must suck every year.