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Cybernaught
08-26-2008, 08:11 PM
Would an Emperor's daughter be called an Empress? Or is that reserved for the Emperor's wife?

Kathie Freeman
08-26-2008, 08:17 PM
The Emporer's daughter would be a Princess. The Emporer's wife may or may not be an Empress, depending on the country's customs and her background and whether or not she is the first or only wife.

For instance, Camilla Parker Bowles is Prince Charles' wife, but will never be Queen as that title is reserved for a reigning monarch.

Tocotin
08-26-2008, 08:19 PM
I think that an empress would be an emperor's crowned wife. The daughters would be simply called princesses, crown princesses or princesses of the blood (such is the case in Japan which has the world's only remaining emperor on the throne).

DeleyanLee
08-26-2008, 08:21 PM
It is possible that only wife would be an Empress, and the rest wouldn't be. It all depends on what the national laws for recognition are.


For instance, Camilla Parker Bowles is Prince Charles' wife, but will never be Queen as that title is reserved for a reigning monarch.

Actually, the wife of a king in England is the queen. She doesn't have to rule in her own right to have the title. (Example: Queen Elizabeth II's mother was also Queen Elizabeth and known after her husband's death as "The Queen Mum".)

Parker Bowles won't be queen of some pre-nupital arrangement (IIRC, I could be wrong on that), but that's a different thing. It's like the same arrangement (though in the divorce papers) that allowed Diana to still be the Princess of Wales even though she was no longer married to the Prince (and the only way one could be the Princess of Wales).

Tocotin
08-26-2008, 08:34 PM
Actually, the wife of a king in England is the queen. She doesn't have to rule in her own right to have the title. (Example: Queen Elizabeth II's mother was also Queen Elizabeth and known after her husband's death as "The Queen Mum".)

Parker Bowles won't be queen of some pre-nupital arrangement (IIRC, I could be wrong on that), but that's a different thing. It's like the same arrangement (though in the divorce papers) that allowed Diana to still be the Princess of Wales even though she was no longer married to the Prince (and the only way one could be the Princess of Wales).

There is only a slight difference: her style changed from HRH The Princess of Wales to Diana, Princess of Wales after her divorce. She was and is still considered a member of the royal family.

I'm not sure about Parker-Bowles, she can probably use the title of queen consort, but can't be crowned due to her being a divorcee.

Cybernaught
08-26-2008, 08:36 PM
Thanks for the help. Princess it is, then.

brianm
08-26-2008, 08:53 PM
I'm not sure about Parker-Bowles, she can probably use the title of queen consort, but can't be crowned due to her being a divorcee.

There is an agreement that she will never have the title of Queen consort, although legally she will be Queen consort regardless of the agreement. Some feel she will in fact be crowned Queen if Charles does ascend the throne. She is legally the Princess of Wales, but she uses the title HRH the Duchess of Cornwall for obvious reasons.

Diana, Princess of Wales (as she was known after the divorce) retained her title of Princess of Wales because of the two princes but she lost Her Royal Highness status, which actually placed her lower in rank and caused her to curtsy to others who had curtsied to her previously.

As to the OP’s question, an Emperor’s daughter is a princess.